1.	The human genome contains about
	A. 35,000 genes   B. 350,000 genes   C. 350,000,000 genes   D. 350,000,000,000 genes   no answer

2.	Which parts of a neuron are sometimes myelinated?
	A. axon initial segment   B. dendrite   C. axon   D. A and C   E. all of the above   no answer

3.	The human brain contains approximately
	A. 100 neurons   B. 100,000,000 neurons   C. 100,000,000,000 neurons   D. 100,000,000,000,000 neurons   no answer

4.	Neuronal resting membrane potential is described by the
	A. Nernst equation   B. Goldman equation   C. Hodgkin-Huxley equation   D. none of the above   no answer

5.	Resting neuronal membrane is permeable mostly to
	A. potassium   B. sodium   C. chloride   D. calcium   no answer

6.	At the peak of an action potential, neuronal membrane is most permeable to
	A. potassium   B. sodium   C. chloride   D. magnesium   no answer

7.	Ohm's law is
	A. Resistance = voltage * current   B. Resistance = current / voltage   C. Voltage = resistance * current   D. Ohm's law has been superceded for biological membranes.   no answer

8.	Myelination allows
	A. A larger number of sodium channels in the interneuronal membrane.   B. Passive conduction of action potentials between nodes   C. An increase in action potential height.   D. Both A and C.   no answer

9.	During the hyperpolarization following the action potential peak, neuronal membrane is most permeable to
	A. Potassium   B. Sodium   C. Sodium and potassium equally   D. Neither   no answer

10.	Which of these use ATP to create ion gradients?
	A. Ion exchangers   B. Ion channels   C. Facilitated transporters   D. Ion transporters   no answer

11.	Which of these dissipate ion gradients?
	A. Ion exchangers   B. Ion channels   C. Facilitated transporters   D. Ion transporters   no answer

12.	The most diverse family of ion channels are
	A. Sodium channels   B. Potassium channels   C. Calcium channels   D. Chloride channels   no answer

13.	Myotonia is caused by defects in which ion channel?
	A. Na+ channels   B. K+ channels   C. Ca++ channels   D. Cl- channels   no answer

14.	The key ion in neurotransmitter release is
	A. Na+   B. K+   C. Ca++   D. Mg++   no answer

15.	Tetanus toxin
	A. Blocks calcium ion channels   B. Cleaves SNARE protein (synaptic vesicle fusion protein)   C. Blocks neurotransmitter synthesis   D. Blocks receptors on spinal inhibitory interneurons   no answer

16.	Acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction opens a channel with a reversal potential of
	A. +50 mV   B. 0 mV   C. -60 mV   D. -120 mV   no answer

17.	When neurotransmitter binds to metabotropic glutamate receptors, it
	A. Opens an intrinsic ion channel   B. Activates a receptor tyrosine kinase   C. Activates a G protein   D. Releases SNARE protein   no answer

18.	Which neurotransmitter is not an amino acid?
	A. Glutamate   B. GABA   C. Glycine   D. Dopamine   no answer

19.	The nerve gas "Sarin" affects
	A. Acetylcholinesterase   B. Synaptotagmin   C. Synaptobrevin   D. Calcium channels   no answer

20.	Depolarization of NMDA receptors removes block due to
	A. Ca++   B. Ba++   C. Mg++   D. Heme   no answer

21.	Nitric oxide is generated by metabolism of
	A. Glutamate   B. GABA   C. Citrulline   D. Arginine   E. None of the above   no answer

22.	Which of these is NOT an intracellular messenger?
	A. Ca++   B. K+   C. cAMP   D. IP3   no answer

23.	Second messengers usually regulate neuronal function by reversible
	A. Phosphorylation   B. Oxidation   C. Methylation   D. Myristoylation   no answer

24.	RNA polymerase may bind to
	A. Promotor region   B. Histones   C. Transcription factors   D. A and C   E. None of the above   no answer

25.	Mechanosensory receptors from the arms have their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglion and synapse in the
	A. Intermediolateral cell column   B. Substantia gelatinosa   C. VPL nucleus of the thalamus   D. Cuneate nucleus   no answer

26.	Muscle spindles are innervated by
	A. Intrafusal muscle fibers   B. Alpha motor neurons   C. Gamma motor neurons   D. All of the above   no answer

27.	Two point discrimination is best on the
	A. Thumb   B. Belly   C. Upper lip   D. Breast   no answer

28.	Pain and temperature information from the lower face is transmitted by cell bodies in the gasserian ganglion synapsing in the
	A. Spinal trigeminal nucleus, then VPL thalamus   B. Gracile nucleus, then VPL thalamus   C. Spinal trigeminal nucleus, then VPM thalamus   D. Substantia gelatinosa, then VPL thalamus   no answer

29.	A neurology resident went into a bar, had a few drinks, and then winked at Big Jim's woman. Big Jim impaled the neurology resident with a knife, cutting his spinal cord in half at T10 vertebral level. The neurology resident will experience
	A. An "inverse" Brown-Sequard syndrome   B. Loss of two point discrimination, vibration, and joint position sensation on the same side as the hemisection   C. Reduced pain and temperature sensation ipsilateral to the lesion   D. All of the above   no answer

30.	Capasaicin is applied as a topical cream to relieve pain. It activates
	A. VR-1 (vanilloid) receptors   B. Glutamate receptors   C. Excitatory amino acid receptors   D. Polymodal nociceptors in avians   no answer

31.	Light entering the retina traverses, in this order
	A. Cones and rods, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, pigment epithelium   B. Ganglion cells, horizontal cells, amacrine cells, cones and rods, pigment epithelium   C. Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, cones and rods, pigment epithelium   D. None of the above   no answer

32.	Light stimulation of photoreceptors causes
	A. Hyperpolarization due to activation of a photon-gated potassium channel   B. Depolarization due to activity of amacrine cells   C. Rods to lengthen   D. Hyperpolarization due to closure of cGMP-gated channels   no answer

33.	Which is the best screening tool for early signs of age-related macular degeneration?
	A. Amsler grid   B. "Octopus" visual fields   C. Goldman visual fields   D. Visual acuity testing   no answer

34.	Retinal ganglion cells synapse in the
	A. Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus   B. Superior colliculus in the midbrain   C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus   D. All of the above   no answer

35.	A right superior quadranopia can be produced by a lesion of the
	A. Left optic nerve   B. Left temporal lobe   C. Optic chiasm   D. Left parietal cortex   no answer

36.	Visual pathways beyond the striate cortex are broadly organized into
	A. A dorsal (spatial visual) pathway to the parietal lobe   B. A ventral (object recognition) pathway to the temporal lobe   C. Both   D. Neither   no answer

37.	The art or science of combining vocal or instrumental sounds with a view toward beauty or coherence of form and expression of emotion is called
	A. Tonotopy   B. Anisotropy   C. Hyperacusis   D. Music   no answer

38.	Inner hair cells respond to mechanical stimulation of stereocilia by
	A. Depolarization due to K+ entry   B. Opening of calcium channels   C. Neurotransmitter release   D. All of the above   no answer

39.	The auditory pathway begins in the spiral ganglion cells of the cochlea. First and second order synapses are found in
	A. Cochlear nucleus and inferior colliculus   B. Cochlear nucleus and medial geniculate body of thalamus   C. Superior olive and nucleus of the lateral lemniscus   D. None of the above   no answer

40.	The semicircular canals are primarily concerned with
	A. Detection of linear movement   B. Detection of rotation (roll, pitch, and yaw)   C. Both   D. Neither   no answer

41.	Cold H2O in the right ear produced the result illustrated. The patient's lesion is in which structure?
	A. Right parapontine reticular formation   B. Left parapontine reticular formation   C. Right semicircular canal   D. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus   no answer

42.	In vestibular hair cells,
	A. Movement of the stereocilia toward the kinocilium causes transmitter release   B. Movement of the stereocilia away from the kinocilium causes reduced transmitter release   C. There is spontaneous transmitter release in the absence of sound   D. All of the above   no answer

43.	Olfactory receptor neurons project to olfactory bulb, which in turn projects to
	A. Thalamus, then neocortex   B. Archicortex (3-layered)   C. A phylogenetically young part of brain   D. Striate cortex   no answer

44.	Taste is mediated by
	A. CN V, IX, X; NTS; VPM; parietal lobe   B. CN VII, IX, X: NTS; VPM; parietal lobe   C. CN VII, IX, X; NTS; VPM; insula   D. CN V; NTS; VPM; striate cortex   no answer

45.	Taste is impaired by a lesion of the
	A. Chorda tympani   B. Nucleus of the solitary tract   C. Both   D. Neither   no answer

46.	Activation of spindle afferents (Ia sensory neurons) produces
	A. Alpha motor neuron activity increase in agonist muscles   B. An increase in gamma motor neuron activity   C. Alpha motor neuron activity decrease in antagonist muscles   D. Both A and C   no answer

47.	Extrafusal muscle fibers are arranged in SERIES with
	A. Golgi tendon organs   B. Intrafusal muscle fibers   C. Ib inhibitory interneurons   D. Both A and C   no answer

48.	Familial ALS can be caused by mutations affecting
	A. SOD1   B. Cystatin   C. Phosphodiesterase   D. GABA-A receptors   no answer

49.	Motor inputs to spinal motor neurons arise from
	A. Cerebral cortex   B. Red nucleus   C. Superior colliculi   D. All of the above   no answer

50.	The following tracts contribute fibers to the pyramidal decussation.
	A. Lateral corticospinal tract   B. Corticoreticulospinal tract   C. Vestibulospinal tract   D. None of the above   no answer

51.	Modulation of forebrain activity, including consciousness, is a function of
	A. The caudal pontine and medullary reticular formation   B. The mesencephalic and rostral pontine reticular formation   C. Both A and B   D. Ethanol and caffeine effects   no answer

52.	Recent studies indicate that upper facial movement is preserved in MCA stroke because of
	A. Bilateral projection of corticobulbar fibers   B. Preservation of cingulate cortex   C. Preservation of substantia gelatinosa   D. Preservation of insular cortex   no answer

53.	The caudate and putamen are the
	A. Corpus striatum   B. Striate cortex   C. Target of the substantia nigra pars reticulata   D. Repository of repressed cultural memory   no answer

54.	Caudate and putamen send direct
	A. GABAergic projections to globus pallidus   B. GABAergic projections to VA / VL thalamus   C. GABAergic projections to substantia nigra pars reticulata   D. All of the above   no answer

55.	Substantia nigra pars compacta
	A. Degenerates in Parkinson's disease   B. Contains tyrosine hydroxylase   C. Uses dopamine as a neurotransmitter   D. Both A and C are true   E. A, B, and C are true   no answer

56.	Huntington's disease is associated with
	A. Hypertrophy of caudate nuclei   B. Unstable triplet repeats   C. Cysteine repeats   D. Preferential loss of dopaminergic neurons   no answer

57.	The superior cerebellar peduncle projects to
	A. Red nucleus and deep layers of superior colliculus   B. The fastigial, interposed, and dentate nuclei   C. Climbing fibers via the brachium conjunctivum   D. None of the above   no answer

58.	Purkinje cells
	A. Utilize GABA as a neurotransmitter   B. Utilize glutamate as a neurotransmitter   C. Inhibit deep cerebellar nuclei   D. Both A and C   no answer

59.	Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
	A. Can be transmitted by inoculation   B. Can be transmitted by inheritance   C. Is a prion disease   D. Both A and C   E. A, B and C are all true   no answer

60.	Cranial nerve VI innervates
	A. Medial rectus muscle   B. Lateral rectus muscle   C. Inferior oblique muscle   D. Both A and C   E. None of the above   no answer

61.	Completely stabilized retinal images
	A. Disappear from perception   B. Are achieved with microsaccades   C. Are called exterotropic images   D. Are associated with fine visual acuity   no answer

62.	Optokinetic nystagmus
	A. Involves both smooth pursuit and saccades   B. Is a normal phenomenon   C. Can be elicited using a rotating striped drum   D. A, B, and C are all false   E. A, B, and C are all true   no answer

63.	A superior cervical ganglion lesion may cause
	A. Paralysis of pupillary dilator fibers   B. Ptosis   C. Increased facial skin temperature   D. All of the above   no answer

64.	Afferent fibers in the vagus nerve project primarily to the
	A. Nucleus of the solitary tract   B. Brainstem reticular formation   C. Nucleus ambiguus   D. Inferior olive   E. Nucleus gracilis   no answer

65.	Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers to heart
	A. Release acetylcholine   B. Affect muscarinic receptors   C. Slow the heart   D. All of the above are true   E. None of the above are true   no answer

66.	Sildenafil
	A. Is an NO antagonist   B. Activates guanylate cyclase   C. Increases tone in venous sinusoids   D. Is NOT available from disreputable internet pharmacies   no answer

67.	Nerve growth factor causes differentiation of sympathetic progenitor cells into
	A. Adrenergic neurons   B. Cholinergic neurons   C. Chromaffin cells   D. None of the above   no answer

68.	The function of radial glial cells can be described as
	A. Neuronotrophic   B. Ommatidial   C. Cellular guide   D. None of the above   no answer

69.	Gastrulation produces the
	A. Neural plate   B. Three germ cell layers   C. GI tract   D. Heartburn   no answer

70.	Which of the following is NOT involved in early brain development
	A. Sonic hedgehog   B. Frizzled   C. Retinoic acid   D. Drosophila melanogaster   no answer

71.	Early in neural development the neural tube divides into
	A. telencephalon, diencephalon, and rhombencephalon   B. telencephalon, diencephalon, and metencephalon   C. telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon   D. prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon   no answer

72.	The Trk (TrkA, TrkB, TrkC) family of receptor tyrosine kinases are receptors for the growth factors
	A. NGF   B. BDNF   C. NT-3   D. All of the above   no answer

73.	In growth cones, the major structural protein is
	A. Actin   B. Myosin   C. Semaphorin   D. Homeobox gene products   E. Netrin   no answer

74.	Monocular visual deprivation early in development leads to monocular blindness by plasticity within the
	A. Retina   B. Lateral genicular body   C. Striate cortex   D. Posterior temporal cortex near occipital lobe   no answer

75.	Strabismus in children can cause
	A. Amblyopia   B. Ankylosis   C. Acinetobacter   D. Amyloidosis   no answer

76.	The concept of "critical periods" are demonstrated by all of these EXCEPT
	A. Imprinting of geese   B. Human language development   C. Monocular trachoma in children   D. Premenstrual syndrome   no answer

77.	Long term potentiation in mammals involves all EXCEPT
	A. NMDA receptors   B. AMPA receptors   C. Glutamate release   D. Mg++   E. All the above are involved   no answer

78.	Plasticity at the neuromuscular junction includes all EXCEPT
	A. Facilitation   B. Depression   C. Post-tetanic potentiation   D. Long term depression   no answer

79.	Aplysia has been a valuable model for studying
	A. Habituation   B. Instrumental conditioning   C. Sensitization   D. Both A and C are true   E. None of the above are true   no answer

80.	Repetitive stimulation at neuromuscular junction builds up calcium in presynaptic terminals, which is the major factor in causing
	A. Synaptic facilitation   B. Synaptic depression   C. Post-tetanic potentiation   D. Both A and C are true   E. None of the above are true   no answer

81.	Which cytoarchitectonic area does not belong on this list?
	A. Brodmann area 17   B. Brodmann area 4   C. Brodmann area 1   D. Brodmann area 44   no answer

82.	The major output layer of cerebral cortex is layer
	A. I   B. II   C. III   D. IV   E. V   F. VI   no answer

83.	Balint's syndrome consists of
	A. Simultagnosia, optic ataxia, ocular apraxia   B. Pure word deafness   C. Acalculia, finger angosia, right-left confusion   D. Alexia without agraphia   no answer

84.	The meaning of the words in language is called its
	A. Grammar   B. Prosody   C. Syntax   D. Phonemes   no answer

85.	Poor comprehension of language with inappropriate or contrived words but intact grammar suggests
	A. Broca type aphasia   B. Wernicke type aphasia   C. Conduction aphasia   D. Global aphasia   no answer

86.	The prosody of language is usually a function of the
	A. Left hemisphere   B. Right hemisphere   C. Basal ganglia   D. Frontal lobe   no answer

87.	The hormone melatonin is produced by the
	A. Posterior pituitary   B. Suprachiasmatic nucleus   C. Midline thalamic nuclei   D. Pineal gland   no answer

88.	Sleep spindles are most characteristic of
	A. Stage I sleep   B. Stage II sleep   C. Stage III sleep   D. Stage IV sleep D. Stage IV sleep   E. REM sleep   no answer

89.	The presence of two distinct modes of firing--bursting during sleep and tonic activity during wakefulness--is most characteristic of
	A. Thalamocortical neurons   B. Cerebral cortical neurons (layer IV)   C. Cerebral cortical neurons (layer V)   D. Locus coeruleus neurons   no answer

90.	The amygdala is in the
	A. Lateral temporal lobe   B. Medial temporal lobe posterior to hippocampus   C. Medial temporal lobe anterior to hippocampus   D. Medial temporal lobe lateral to the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle   no answer

91.	The "limbic system" includes
	A. Amygdala   B. Cingulate cortex   C. Orbital frontal cortex   D. Both A and C   E. All of the above   no answer

92.	Bilateral damage to the amygdalas impairs which emotion most?
	A. Fear   B. Happiness   C. Sadness   D. All three are equally affected   no answer

93.	In it's "classical" or "indirect" effect, estrogen's initial binding is to
	A. A plasma membrane receptor   B. A cytoplasmic transcription factor   C. DNA   D. None of the above   no answer

94.	Sexually dimorphic areas of the human CNS so far described include
	A. Spinal cord (Onuf's nucleus)   B. Hypothalamus (INAH2, INAH3, suprachiasmatic nucleus, bed nucleus of the stria terminalis)   C. Language areas   D. All of the above are true   no answer

95.	Declarative memory disorder is often a consequence of damage to
	A. Hippocampus   B. Left cerebral hemisphere   C. Medial dorsal nucleus of thalamus   D. Frontal lobes   no answer

96.	Korsakoff's syndrome is associated with damage to
	A. Mamillary bodies   B. Hippocampus   C. Medial thalamus   D. Both A and C are true   E. A, B, and C are all true   no answer

97.	A patient with infarction in the territory of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery may show deficits in
	A. Classical eyeblink conditioning   B. Declarative memory   C. Facial sensation   E. A and C   F. None of the above   no answer

98.	Which of these nuclei are NOT in the medulla?
	A. Nucleus ambiguus   B. Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus   C. Facial nerve nucleus   D. Trigeminal sensory: spinal nucleus   no answer

99.	The basal ganglia are part of the
	A. Telencephalon   B. Diencephalon   C. Mesencephalon   D. Metencephalon   E. Myelencephalon   no answer

100.	Who is buried in Grant's tomb?
	A. Grant   no answer